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Cisco Certified Network Associate - CCNA 2024 exam Dumps

200-301 exam Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | exam Syllabus | exam Objectives

200-301 CCNA

Certification: CCNA

Duration: 120 minutes

This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:

- Network fundamentals

- Network access

- IP connectivity

- IP services

- Security fundamentals

- Automation and programmability

The Cisco Certified Network Associate v1.0 (CCNA 200-301) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNA certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability. The course, Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA), helps candidates prepare for this exam.

20% 1.0 Network Fundamentals

1.1 Explain the role and function of network components

1.1.a Routers

1.1.b L2 and L3 switches

1.1.c Next-generation firewalls and IPS

1.1.d Access points

1.1.e Controllers (Cisco DNA Center and WLC)

1.1.f Endpoints

1.1.g Servers

1.2 Describe characteristics of network topology architectures

1.2.a 2 tier

1.2.b 3 tier

1.2.c Spine-leaf

1.2.d WAN

1.2.e Small office/home office (SOHO)

1.2.f On-premises and cloud

1.3 Compare physical interface and cabling types

1.3.a Single-mode fiber, multimode fiber, copper

1.3.b Connections (Ethernet shared media and point-to-point)

1.3.c Concepts of PoE

1.4 Identify interface and cable issues (collisions, errors, mismatch duplex, and/or speed)

1.5 Compare TCP to UDP

1.6 Configure and verify IPv4 addressing and subnetting

1.7 Describe the need for private IPv4 addressing

1.8 Configure and verify IPv6 addressing and prefix

1.9 Compare IPv6 address types

1.9.a Global unicast

1.9.b Unique local

1.9.c Link local

1.9.d Anycast

1.9.e Multicast

1.9.f Modified EUI 64

1.10 Verify IP parameters for Client OS (Windows, Mac OS, Linux)

1.11 Describe wireless principles 1.11.a Nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels 1.11.b SSID 1.11.c RF 1.11.d Encryption

1.12 Explain virtualization fundamentals (virtual machines)

1.13 Describe switching concepts

1.13.a MAC learning and aging

1.13.b Frame switching

1.13.c Frame flooding

1.13.d MAC address table

20% 2.0 Network Access

2.1 Configure and verify VLANs (normal range) spanning multiple switches

2.1.a Access ports (data and voice)

2.1.b Default VLAN

2.1.c Connectivity

2.2 Configure and verify interswitch connectivity

2.2.a Trunk ports

2.2.b 802.1Q

2.2.c Native VLAN

2.3 Configure and verify Layer 2 discovery protocols (Cisco Discovery Protocol and LLDP)

2.4 Configure and verify (Layer 2/Layer 3) EtherChannel (LACP)

2.5 Describe the need for and basic operations of Rapid PVST+ Spanning Tree Protocol and identify basic operations

2.5.a Root port, root bridge (primary/secondary), and other port names

2.5.b Port states (forwarding/blocking)

2.5.c PortFast benefits

2.6 Compare Cisco Wireless Architectures and AP modes

2.7 Describe physical infrastructure connections of WLAN components (AP, WLC, access/trunk ports, and LAG)

2.8 Describe AP and WLC management access connections (Telnet, SSH, HTTP, HTTPS, console, and TACACS+/RADIUS)

2.9 Configure the components of a wireless LAN access for client connectivity using GUI only such as WLAN creation, security settings, QoS profiles, and advanced WLAN settings

25% 3.0 IP Connectivity

3.1 Interpret the components of routing table

3.1.a Routing protocol code

3.1.b Prefix

3.1.c Network mask

3.1.d Next hop

3.1.e Administrative distance

3.1.f Metric

3.1.g Gateway of last resort

3.2 Determine how a router makes a forwarding decision by default

3.2.a Longest match

3.2.b Administrative distance

3.2.c Routing protocol metric

3.3 Configure and verify IPv4 and IPv6 static routing

3.3.a Default route

3.3.b Network route

3.3.c Host route

3.3.d Floating static

3.4 Configure and verify single area OSPFv2

3.4.a Neighbor adjacencies

3.4.b Point-to-point

3.4.c Broadcast (DR/BDR selection)

3.4.d Router ID

3.5 Describe the purpose of first hop redundancy protocol

10% 4.0 IP Services

4.1 Configure and verify inside source NAT using static and pools

4.2 Configure and verify NTP operating in a client and server mode

4.3 Explain the role of DHCP and DNS within the network

4.4 Explain the function of SNMP in network operations

4.5 Describe the use of syslog features including facilities and levels

4.6 Configure and verify DHCP client and relay

4.7 Explain the forwarding per-hop behavior (PHB) for QoS such as classification, marking, queuing, congestion, policing, shaping

4.8 Configure network devices for remote access using SSH

4.9 Describe the capabilities and function of TFTP/FTP in the network

15% 5.0 Security Fundamentals

5.1 Define key security concepts (threats, vulnerabilities, exploits, and mitigation techniques)

5.2 Describe security program elements (user awareness, training, and physical access control)

5.3 Configure device access control using local passwords

5.4 Describe security password policies elements, such as management, complexity, and password alternatives (multifactor authentication, certificates, and biometrics)

5.5 Describe remote access and site-to-site VPNs

5.6 Configure and verify access control lists

5.7 Configure Layer 2 security features (DHCP snooping, dynamic ARP inspection, and port security)

5.8 Differentiate authentication, authorization, and accounting concepts

5.9 Describe wireless security protocols (WPA, WPA2, and WPA3)

5.10 Configure WLAN using WPA2 PSK using the GUI

10% 6.0 Automation and Programmability

6.1 Explain how automation impacts network management

6.2 Compare traditional networks with controller-based networking

6.3 Describe controller-based and software defined architectures (overlay, underlay, and fabric)

6.3.a Separation of control plane and data plane

6.3.b North-bound and south-bound APIs

6.4 Compare traditional campus device management with Cisco DNA Center enabled device management

6.5 Describe characteristics of REST-based APIs (CRUD, HTTP verbs, and data encoding)

6.6 Recognize the capabilities of configuration management mechanisms Puppet, Chef, and Ansible

6.7 Interpret JSON encoded data

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200-301
Cisco Certified Network Associate - CCNA 2023
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/200-301
Question: 726
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command provides this output?
A. show ip route
B. show cdp neighbor
C. show ip interface
D. show interface
Answer: B
Question: 727
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
A. mode on
B. active
C. passive
D. auto
Answer: B
Question: 728
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence.
Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Answer: AD
Question: 729
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix does Router1 use to Host A?
A. 10.10.10.0/28
B. 10.10.13.0/25
C. 10.10.13.144/28
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Answer: D
Question: 730
Refer to the exhibit.
After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B.
Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected?
A. The PCs are in the incorrect VLA
C. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk.
D. Access mode is configured on the switch ports.
E. There is a native VLAN mismatch.
Answer: D
Question: 731
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Answer: C
Question: 732
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
A. It belongs to a private IP address range.
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It is a network IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address.
Answer: D
Question: 733
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.
B. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.
C. The hypervisor can virtual physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
D. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
Answer: C
Question: 734
Refer to the exhibit.
How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
A. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its trunk ports.
B. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.
C. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports.
D. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558-21.html
Question: 735
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Answer: B
Question: 736
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.)
A. QoS settings
B. IP address of one or more access points
C. SSID
D. profile name
E. management interface settings
Answer: CD
Question: 737
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implementing on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A. The EtherChannel must be configured in �mode active�.
B. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.
C. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.
D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-2/config-guide/b_cg82/ b_cg82_chapter_010101011.html
Question: 738
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable.
What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link becomes an access port.
B. The link is in an error disabled state.
C. The link is in a down state.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.
Answer: D
Question: 739
Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast
D. global unicast
Answer: B
Question: 740
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A. active
B. on
C. auto
D. desirable
Answer: B
Question: 741
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLA
E. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
Answer: C
Question: 742
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Answer: D
Question: 743
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
A. The trunk does not form, and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
C. The trunk forms, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.
D. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
Answer: B
Question: 744
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
A. It immediately enables the port in the listening state.
B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded.
C. It enabled BPDU messages.
D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12-2_55_se/ configuration/guide/3560_scg/swstpopt.html
Question: 745
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
A. Platinum
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Silver
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/81831-qoswlc-lap.html
Question: 746
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes.
Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
A. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252
B. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248
C. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248
D. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
Answer: D
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