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College Level Examination Program (All CLEP test Pack) test Dumps

CLEP test Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | test Syllabus | test Objectives

The CLEP College Composition test assesses writing skills taught in most first-year college composition courses. Those skills include analysis, argumentation, synthesis, usage, ability to recognize logical development, and research.



The College Composition test contains approximately 50 multiple-choice questions to be answered in approximately 50 minutes and 2 mandatory, centrally scored essays to be written in 70 minutes, for a total testing time of 120 minutes. The essays are scored twice a month by college English faculty from throughout the country via an online scoring system. Each of the two essays is scored independently by at least two different readers, and the scores are then combined. This combined score is weighted approximately equally with the score from the multiple-choice section. These scores are then combined to yield the test-takers score. The resulting combined score is reported as a single scaled score between 20 and 80. Separate scores are not reported for the multiple-choice and essay sections.



Note: Although scores are provided immediately upon completion for other CLEP exams, scores for the College Composition test are available to test takers one to two weeks after the test date. View the complete College Composition Scoring and Score Availability Dates.



The test includes some pretest multiple-choice questions that won't be counted toward the test taker's score.



Colleges set their own credit-granting policies and therefore differ with regard to their acceptance of the College Composition exam. Most colleges will grant course credit for a first-year composition or English course that emphasizes expository writing; others will grant credit toward satisfying a liberal arts or distribution requirement in English.



The American Council on Educations College Credit Recommendation Service (ACE CREDIT) has evaluated the test and recommended the awarding of college credit for a score of 50 or above on the CLEP College Composition exam.



Conventions of Standard Written English (10%)

This section measures test takers' awareness of a variety of logical, structural, and grammatical relationships within sentences. The questions test recognition of acceptable usage relating to the items below:



Syntax (parallelism, coordination, subordination)

Sentence boundaries (comma splices, run-ons, sentence fragments)

Recognition of correct sentences

Concord/agreement (pronoun reference, case shift, and number; subject-verb; verb tense)

Diction

Modifiers

Idiom

Active/passive voice

Lack of subject in modifying word group

Logical comparison

Logical agreement

Punctuation


Revision Skills (40%)

This section measures test takers' revision skills in the context of works in progress (early drafts of essays):



Organization

Evaluation of evidence

Awareness of audience, tone, and purpose

Level of detail

Coherence between sentences and paragraphs

Sentence variety and structure

Main idea, thesis statements, and Topic sentences

Rhetorical effects and emphasis

Use of language

Evaluation of author's authority and appeal

Evaluation of reasoning

Consistency of point of view

Transitions

Sentence-level errors primarily relating to the conventions of Standard Written English


Ability to Use Source Materials (25%)

This section measures test takers' familiarity with elements of the following basic reference and research skills, which are tested primarily in sets but may also be tested through stand-alone questions. In the passage-based sets, the elements listed under Revision Skills and Rhetorical Analysis may also be tested. In addition, this section will cover the following skills:



Use of reference materials

Evaluation of sources

Integration of resource material

Documentation of sources (including, but not limited to, MLA, APA, and Chicago manuals of style)


Rhetorical Analysis (25%)

This section measures test takers' ability to analyze writing. This skill is tested primarily in passage-based questions
pertaining to critical thinking, style, purpose, audience, and situation:



Appeals

Tone

Organization/structure

Rhetorical effects

Use of language

Evaluation of evidence

The Essays

In addition to the multiple-choice section, the College Composition test includes a mandatory essay section that tests skills of argumentation, analysis, and synthesis. This section of the test consists of two essays, both of which measure a test taker's ability to write clearly and effectively. The first essay is based on the test taker's reading, observation, or experience, while the second requires test takers to synthesize and cite two sources that are provided. Test takers have 30 minutes to write the first essay and 40 minutes to read the two sources and write the second essay. The essays must be typed on the computer.



First Essay: Directions

Write an essay in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the statement provided. Support your discussion with specific reasons and examples from your reading, experience, or observations.



Second Essay: Directions

This assignment requires you to write a coherent essay in which you synthesize the two sources provided. Synthesis refers to combining the sources and your position to form a cohesive, supported argument. You must develop a position and incorporate both sources. You must cite the sources whether you are paraphrasing or quoting. Refer to each source by the authors last name, the title, or by any other means that adequately identifies it.



Essay Scoring Guidelines

Readers will assign scores based on the following scoring guide.



6 – A 6 essay demonstrates a high degree of competence and sustained control, although it may have a few minor errors.


A typical essay in this category


addresses the writing task very effectively

develops ideas thoroughly, using well-chosen reasons, examples, or details for support

is clearly-focused and well-organized

demonstrates superior facility with language, using effective vocabulary and sentence variety

demonstrates strong control of the standard conventions of grammar, usage, and mechanics, though it may contain minor errors
5 – A 5 essay demonstrates a generally high degree of competence, although it will have occasional lapses in quality.


A typical essay in this category:


addresses the writing task effectively

develops ideas consistently, using appropriate reasons, examples, or details for support

is focused and organized

demonstrates facility with language, using appropriate vocabulary and some sentence variety

demonstrates consistent control of the standard conventions of grammar, usage, and mechanics, though it may contain minor errors
4 – A 4 essay demonstrates competence, with some errors and lapses in quality.


A typical essay in this category


addresses the writing task adequately

develops ideas adequately, using generally relevant reasons, examples, or details for support

is generally focused and organized

demonstrates competence with language, using adequate vocabulary and minimal sentence variety

demonstrates adequate control of the standard conventions of grammar, usage, and mechanics; errors do not interfere with meaning
3 – A 3 essay demonstrates limited competence.


A typical essay in this category exhibits one or more of the following weaknesses:


addresses the writing task, but may fail to sustain a focus or viewpoint

develops ideas unevenly, often using assertions rather than relevant reasons, examples, or details for support is poorly focused and/or poorly organized displays frequent problems in the use of language, using unvaried diction and syntax
demonstrates some control of grammar, usage, and mechanics, but with occasional shifts and inconsistencies

2 – A 2 essay is seriously flawed.


A typical essay in this category exhibits one or more of the following weaknesses:


addresses the writing task in a seriously limited or unclear manner

develops ideas thinly, providing few or no relevant reasons, examples, or details for support is unfocused and/or disorganized
displays frequent serious language errors that may interfere with meaning

demonstrates a lack of control of standard grammar, usage, and mechanics

1 – A 1 essay is fundamentally deficient.


A typical essay in this category exhibits one or more of the following weaknesses:


does not address the writing task in a meaningful way

does not develop ideas with relevant reasons, examples, or details

displays a fundamental lack of control of language that may seriously interfere with meaning

0 – Off topic.


Provides no evidence of an attempt to respond to the assigned topic, is written in a language other than English, merely copies the prompt, or consists of only keystroke characters.
* For the purposes of scoring, synthesis refers to combining the sources and the writers position to form a cohesive, supported argument.

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Answer: B
QUESTION: 600
Which of the following industries did not experience major growth from the late 1800s to the
early 1900s?
A. Beef
B. Steel
C. Oil
D. Cloth
E. Wood
Answer: A
QUESTION: 601
Which statement does not accurately portray changes to the American labor force wrought by
industrialization in the late 19th and early 20th centuries?
A. By 1880, there were almost five million individuals working in industrial jobs.
B. More than two million women were employed in factories or offices by 1880.
C. By the year 1890, 25% of children aged 10 to 15 years were in the workforce.
D. During these years it was common for workers to sustain injuries and illness.
E. Workers' compensation, disability, and retirement did not exist for workers.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 602
Which of the following is true regarding business consolidation around the turn of the 19th
and20th centuries in American industries?
A. John D Rockefeller used vertical integration with his Standard Oil Company.
B. Gustavus Swift was the first to use horizontal integration with meat packing.
C. Social Darwinists were opposed to consolidation as well as to deregulation.
D. Economists against consolidation favored more control of natural processes.
E. The Sherman Anti-Trust Act proved quite effective in preventing monopoly.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 603
Which of the following statistics is not accurate with respect to the urbanization of America
between 1870 and 1920?
A. The number of Americans who lived in cities grew more than fivefold during this time.
B. By 1920, almost half of the American population lived in cities with over 2500 people.
C. Cities having populations greater than 100 000 went up by more than 3.5 times.
D. Cities having populations greater than 500 000 increased to six-fold.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 604
Around the turn of the 19th and 20th century, when city slums resulted from overcrowding due
to immigration, in which of the following areas was the least improvement made?
A. Housing
B. Sewage
C. Firefighting
D. Street lights
E. Water supply
Answer: A
QUESTION: 605
Which of the following was not a development of city culture in America around the turn of the
19th and20th century?
A. Baseball had become America's favorite professional sport by the 1880s.
B. Vaudeville shows rode trains from cities to small towns across America.
C. Early directors liked W Griffith developed the motion picture industry.
D. Pulitzer and Hearst gave mass popularity to newspapers and magazines.
E. All of these were American urban cultural developments during this time.
Answer: E
Section 48: Sec Forty Eight (606 to 614)
Details:High Pressure Chemistry Practice
QUESTION: 606
What is the pressure of a mixture of CO 2, SO 2 and H 20 gases, if each gas has a partial pressure of
250 torr?
A. 250 torr
B. 500 torr
C. 750 torr
D. 1,000 torr
Answer: C
QUESTION: 607
A gas sample has a volume of 25.0 milliliters at a pressure of 1.0 atmosphere. If the volume
increases to 50.0 milliliters and the temperature remains constant, the new pressure will be
A. 1.0 atm
B. 2.0 atm
C. .250 atm
D. .500 atm
Answer: D
QUESTION: 608
An increase of the temperature of a system at equilibrium favors the
A. Endothermic reaction and decreases its rate
B. Endothermic reaction and increases its rate
C. Exothermic reaction and decreases its rate
D. Exothermic reaction and increases its rate
Answer: B
QUESTION: 609
oxygen gas in a closed system has a volume of 200 milliliters at 600 k. If the
A sample of
pressure is held constant and the temperature is lowered to 300 K, the volume of the gas will be
A. 100 ml
B. 200 ml
C. 300 ml
D. 400 ml
Answer: A
QUESTION: 610
An assumption of the kinetic energy of gases is that the particles of a gas have
A. Little attraction for each other and a significant volume
B. Little attraction for each other and an insignificant volume
C. Strong attraction for each other and a significant volume
D. Strong attraction for each other and an insignificant volume
Answer: B
QUESTION: 611
What is the volume occupied by 2.0 moles of Ar(g) at STP?
A. 22.4 L
B. 44.8 L
C. 89.6 L
D. 179 L
Answer: B
QUESTION: 612
Which gas is least likely to obey the ideal gas laws at very high temperatures and very low
temperatures?
A. Kr
B. Ne
C. He
D. Xe
Answer: D
QUESTION: 613
A gas at STP has a volume of 1.0 liters. If the pressure is doubled and the temperature remains
constant, the new volume of the gas will be
A. .25 L
B. 2.0 L
C. .50 L
D. 4.0 L
Answer: C
QUESTION: 614
At 1 atmosphere of pressure, 25.0 grams of a compound at its boiling point is converted to a gas
by the addition of 8,180 calories. What is the heat of vaporization for this compound, in calories
per gram?
A. 25.0 cal/g
B. 327 cal/g
C. 540 cal/g
D. 8,140 cal/g
Answer: B
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